Let \( f_n : [-1, 1] \to \mathbb{R} \) be a continuous function for \( n = 1, 2, 3, \dots \). Define

\[

g_n(y) := \log \int_{-1}^1 e^{y f_n(x)} dx.

\]

Suppose there exists a continuous function \( g: \mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R} \) and \( y_0 \in \mathbb{R} \) such that \( \lim_{n \to \infty} g_n(y) = g(y) \) for all \( y \neq y_0 \). Prove or disprove that \( \lim_{n \to \infty} g_n(y_0) = g(y_0) \).

The best solution was submitted by 홍의천 (수리과학과 2017학번). Congratulations!

Here is his solution of problem 2020-04.

Other solutions were submitted by 길현준 (수리과학과 2018학번, +3), 김기택 (수리과학과 2015학번, +3), 이준호 (2016학번, +3).